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I have a recipe for making Ogi - soured mixed millet, that calls for soaking whole millet grains, then blending them, then souring them with whey for three days. I'm wondering why is there the first soaking, is it for reducing phytate content, that wouldn't be reduced if the millet is actually blended or grinded?

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Even if it does reduce the content of phytates, I doubt that this is the reason why the recipe was made that way - traditionally cooks had no way of measuring phytates (and didn't know what they are!) There are many simpler alternative explanations - for example, if all you have is mortar and pestle, it is much easier to "blend" soaked grains than dry ones. – rumtscho Feb 18 '14 at 12:12

To reduce phytates and to soften the outer coating. The whey, if acid whey, also reduces phytates even more. If it calls for soaking for two days or so, it is to germinate the grain/seed.

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