Timeline for Why is the alcohol content in British beer so weak?
Current License: CC BY-SA 3.0
6 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| Nov 4, 2011 at 13:14 | comment | added | mfg | The keyword I was scanning for was "session beer"; for all the logistics of why a beer would play tax and dodge with tarriffs, a good amount of the customers' adoption (and corresponding success) of lower gravity beers is to do with extended drinking sessions. | |
| Jun 6, 2011 at 7:59 | comment | added | jwenting | that's well known. And of course Brits tend to drink a lot more heavily as compared to many other people, so a similar amount of alcohol would have to be distributed over a larger volume even if they didn't get drunk so easily. | |
| Jun 6, 2011 at 5:54 | comment | added | BobMcGee | @belisarius: Or maybe Brits can't hold their alcohol like Bavarians ;-) | |
| Jun 6, 2011 at 4:27 | comment | added | Dr. belisarius | @rumtscho Perhaps the "socially acceptable dunkedness" has not a universally accepted unit. See en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Metre#Timeline_of_definition | |
| Jun 5, 2011 at 21:23 | comment | added | rumtscho♦ | The explanation sounds nice, but doesn't convince me completely. Bavaria also has a strong pub culture (Stammkneipen culture?) and both doppelbock (10% lager) and spiked beer cocktails like Kirschgoiß are widespread there (although not as popular as standard lager). If the socially acceptable drunkedness after a long evening was so important in determining the alc content of drinks, there should be much less demand for strong beers in Bavaria too. | |
| Jun 5, 2011 at 20:40 | history | answered | BobMcGee | CC BY-SA 3.0 |